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Questions - fitch-proofs

Why is Q → P a logical consequence of ¬(P → Q )

I don't want to ask my professor about this because I'm awful at this and he's not the, uhh, patient type of professor to say the least. ANYWAY, it was my understanding that ¬(P → Q ) and (¬P → ¬Q ) m...
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Daniel K.

logic

first-order-logic

demorgans-law

fitch-proofs

Votes: 0

Answers: 1

Latest Answer

Perhaps some more background - by logical consequence we usually mean the semantical notion of the entailment operator: the entailment A ⊨ B holds if B is true in all models in which A is true. In cla...
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lambda.xy.x

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